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Obviously that is a leading question which wants the "IT'S ALL THE JEWS FAULT!" answer.
But why not turn it around and answer whether that question is true - where the answer is a clear no: the Rothshilds did not cause the crash, they only took advantage of information asymmetry.
There already are various debunkings (1, 2, 3...) so that could be a reason to close.
On the other hand similar topics (even with a conspiracy hint) isn't shyed away here and answers given here are often of an extremely high quality.

However that would totally distort the question and have some kind of Streisand effect & Illusion of truth effect.

What is the general opionon here?

I actually just ask because I want to show off my old edition of Deutsche Geschichte im 19th Jahrhundert, which is unbelievably biased against the Rothschild. So for me the absence of this rumor in those books proofs it to be false

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    I would personally support a properly-written repost of the question on actual history, with prior research and all that standard jazz (i.e. did the london stock market even crash & what were the causes). I feel it would be substantially different from the conspiracy question to merit being another post. – Semaphore♦ Jan 5 '15 at 9:31
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    I agree that a well-written question, with correspondingly well-written answers, would be useful both from a factual point of view and as a foil to future CT questions (which can be closed as duplicates). – Steve Bird Jan 6 '15 at 12:39

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