This question came up in a debate over this question: What exactly is the concept (or main idea) of "The White Man's Burden" in Imperialism?
Two relatively high rep people on the site tried to answer the question with either direct, or indirect references to Kipling's poem, "Take up the white man's burden." This attracted criticism and downvotes for "not answering the question."
But one commenter had this opinion (which I endorse):
"It is bizarre to answer the question without referring to the poem... It would be like discussing the phrase "government of the people, by the people, for the people" as if there had never been a Gettysburg Address and Lincoln had never lived."
I believe that an extremely sophisticated questioner could use a quote independently of its original context by defining "his version" of the quote. But the OP did not fall into this category. He was a first time user, who appeared to be "fishing" for an answer.
I almost wanted to edit the question by inserting a link to the poem in the question. Should I have done this? I decided instead to lead by example and cite the poem in the answer, answering what I believe was the OP's "implicit" question. Was I wrong to do this?
Could the question have been answered a "better" way? Or was the issue was that the question was bad?